Comparison Test for Improper Integrals
We can compare integrals to (sometimes) quickly determine if an improper integral will converge.
For example, we found that:
\[ \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x^2} dx = 1 \text{ (converges)} \]
Since \( 0 \le \frac{1}{x^2+1} \le \frac{1}{x^2} \) because \( \frac{1}{x^2+1} \) has a larger denominator,
\[ 0 \le \underbrace{\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x^2+1} dx}_{\text{must also converge}} \le \underbrace{\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x^2} dx}_{\substack{\text{convergent} \\ \text{so is finite}}} \]
Similarly, \( \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x} dx \) diverges.
And \( \frac{1}{x-\frac{1}{2}} \ge \frac{1}{x} \) since \( \frac{1}{x-\frac{1}{2}} \) has a smaller denominator.
\[ \underbrace{\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x-\frac{1}{2}} dx}_{\text{must be a bigger } \infty} \ge \underbrace{\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x} dx}_{\infty} \]
So \( \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x-\frac{1}{2}} dx \) diverges.